I'm sure I missed something and it might be really simple but I can't see it.

I calculated my TradeCosts variable from the manual:
Quote:
The roundturn cost of a currency trade - without rollover and slippage - is Lots*(Commission*LotAmount/10000 + Spread*PIPCost/PIP).

and do trades in a test like:
Code:
[EUR/USD::L5901] Long 1@1.3616 Risk 1$ p at 15:00
Spread: 0.00005
Commission: 0.6000
LotAmount: 1000
PIPCost: 0.08710
TradeCosts: 0.10355
Target Distance (PIPs): 15.2
EstimatedProfit: 1.42
EstimatedRiskReward: 0.5
[EUR/USD::L5901] Target 1@1.3631: +1.09 at 15:03


I trade 1 Lot. So if I buy it at 1.3616 and sell it at 1.3631 the difference is 0.0015 that makes a raw profit of 1.5/Lot. If I deduct trade costs of 0.10355 the profit should rest at 1.40 (1.39645).
For the real profit is 1.09 only I missed something, but what? Slippage I guess would have been expressed through other buy/sell prices if there was any, and I think the logged prices are the real prices where the trade was filled.

Thanks, Sphin